Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yigal Levin <Yigal-Levin AT utc.edu>]

At 06:23 PM 2/25/2003 -0500, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:
>
>Dear All,
>Is P (g) still considered to be post-exilic?
>and if so, what is that based on?

Hi Liz,

Just some references on the problem:
B.A. Levine, Numbers 1-20 (The Anchor Bible, New York, 1993), 101-109, who
insists on post-exilic.
A. Hurvitz, "The Evidence of Language in Dating the Priestly Code", RB 81
(1974), 24-56; idem, "Dating the Priestly Source in Light of the Historical
Study of Biblical Hebrew A Century after Wellhausen", ZAW 100 (1988),
88-100 and G.J. Wenham,  Numbers - An Introduction and Commentary (The
Tyndale Old Testament Commentaries, Leicester-Downers Grove, 1981), 22-23
who place P before D, that is, pre-exilic. 
See also R.E. Friedman, The Exile and Biblical Narrative - The Formation of
the Deuteronomistic and Priestly Works (Harvard Semitic Monographs 22,
Chico, 1981), who posits a pre-exilic D1 followed by a pre-exilic P1
followed by an exilic D2 followed by an exilic or post-exilic P2.

Yigal



Dr. Yigal Levin
Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
615 McCallie Avenue
Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
U.S.A.
>From lizfried AT umich.edu  Wed Feb 26 21:11:26 2003
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From: "Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>
To: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: RE: [b-hebrew] The Priestly Stratum
Date: Wed, 26 Feb 2003 21:17:49 -0500
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Thanks Yigal,
These are all (except for Levine) 20 years old!
Have the arguments held up?
What do the linguists on the list think of the linguistic
arguments?
I'm really beginning to think that the whole endeavor
of dating the texts is a waste of time. Is there any fixed
point that everyone agrees on?
Liz

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of Yigal Levin
> Sent: Wed, February 26, 2003 9:01 PM
> To: b-hebrew
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] The Priestly Stratum
>
>
> At 06:23 PM 2/25/2003 -0500, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:
> >
> >Dear All,
> >Is P (g) still considered to be post-exilic?
> >and if so, what is that based on?
>
> Hi Liz,
>
> Just some references on the problem:
> B.A. Levine, Numbers 1-20 (The Anchor Bible, New York, 1993),
> 101-109, who
> insists on post-exilic.
> A. Hurvitz, "The Evidence of Language in Dating the Priestly
> Code", RB 81
> (1974), 24-56; idem, "Dating the Priestly Source in Light of
> the Historical
> Study of Biblical Hebrew A Century after Wellhausen", ZAW 100 (1988),
> 88-100 and G.J. Wenham,  Numbers - An Introduction and Commentary (The
> Tyndale Old Testament Commentaries, Leicester-Downers Grove,
> 1981), 22-23
> who place P before D, that is, pre-exilic.
> See also R.E. Friedman, The Exile and Biblical Narrative -
> The Formation of
> the Deuteronomistic and Priestly Works (Harvard Semitic Monographs 22,
> Chico, 1981), who posits a pre-exilic D1 followed by a pre-exilic P1
> followed by an exilic D2 followed by an exilic or post-exilic P2.
>
> Yigal
>
>
>
> Dr. Yigal Levin
> Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
> University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
> 615 McCallie Avenue
> Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
> U.S.A.
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