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  • From: "Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>
  • To: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] The Priestly Stratum
  • Date: Tue, 25 Feb 2003 18:23:13 -0500


Dear All,
Is P (g) still considered to be post-exilic?
and if so, what is that based on?
(al regel ehad, please).
I'm reviewing a book in which the author
bases his entire argument for his history of
the priesthood on the assumption that P is post-exilic.
I'm wondering how firm a basis this is, and if these
arguments are not circular. Does not the assumption that P
is post-Exilic rest on our (or, to be more precise, on Wellhausen' s)
assumptions about the history of the priesthood?
Thanks,
Liz





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