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Re: why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?
- From: "George Athas" <gathas AT hotkey.net.au>
- To: "B-HEBREW" <b-hebrew AT franklin.metalab.unc.edu>
- Subject: Re: why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?
- Date: Mon, 12 Aug 2002 13:36:22 +1000
Actually Andrew, it is in the construct state. The only reason I see that you
might think it is not
in the construct state is by analogy with Gen 1.1 which always gets
translated as an absolute, "In
the beginning". This, however, is a troublesome translation of Gen 1.1. I
refer you to B-Hebrew
archives to access previous discussions on that issue.
Rest assured, however, that Jer 26.1 does start with a construct expression:
The construct chain
involves the first three words -- ie, up to "Jehoiakim". And since
"Jehoiakim" is a personal noun
(a name), it is automatically definite, thereby rendering the entire
construct chain definite. "At
the beginning of the kingship of Jehoiakim ben-Josiah..."
If the first word were not definite, it would have a qamets vowel beneath the
initial
beth-preposition. However, it has a shewa, making a construct reading the
only real reading
possible.
Best regards,
Dr GEORGE ATHAS
Lecturer of Biblical Languages
Southern Cross College
Sydney, Australia
-
why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?,
Andrew Kulikovsky, 08/11/2002
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- Re: why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?, George Athas, 08/11/2002
- Re: why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?, Andrew & Debby Kulikovsky, 08/12/2002
- Re: why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?, George Athas, 08/16/2002
- Re: why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?, Yigal Levin, 08/16/2002
- Re: why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?, Polycarp66, 08/16/2002
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