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RE: Vowels... Was "why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?"
- From: "Bill Ross" <BillRoss AT norisksoftware.com>
- To: "'George Athas'" <gathas AT hotkey.net.au>, "'Biblical Hebrew'" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
- Subject: RE: Vowels... Was "why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?"
- Date: Sun, 11 Aug 2002 22:44:21 -0500
<George>
If the first word were not definite, it would have a qamets vowel
beneath the initial beth-preposition. However, it has a shewa, making a
construct reading the only real reading possible.
<Bill>
I have heard that the vowels are a fairly late addition to the text. Is
this true?
And since the only difference (as I, from my ignorant view point
understand it) between many words is the vowel pointing, shouldn't the
range of inquiry include the question:
"If the pointing is accepted, then it must be...
But if the pointing is taken as... Then it would read..."?
This is the same in Greek, where some words are differentiated only by
accents, also a later addition.
Any thoughts?
Thanks,
Bill Ross
-
RE: Vowels... Was "why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?",
Bill Ross, 08/11/2002
- Re: Vowels... Was "why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?", George Athas, 08/11/2002
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- RE: Vowels... Was "why isn't bereshit in Jer 26:1 in the construct state?", Peter Kirk, 08/12/2002
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