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b-hebrew - Re: Is R)$YT even a "time" word?

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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

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Chronological Thread  
  • From: "Charles David Isbell" <cisbell AT cox.net>
  • To: "Christian M. M. Brady" <cbrady AT tulane.edu>, "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Is R)$YT even a "time" word?
  • Date: Mon, 25 Mar 2002 10:13:53 -0400



----- Original Message -----
From: "Christian M. M. Brady" <cbrady AT tulane.edu>

Mommy?! Where is the list mom? This really should stop now...
***********
Dear Christian,

I cannot agree more. In the past several weeks we have learned a lot.
According to the postings of Ian and Peter about each other, we now have
been told that:

[a] Neither one knows what bereshit means, although the accent on the final
syllable of the word gives me a clue.
[b] Neither one can read a text.
[c] Neither knows a bit of grammar.
[d] Both are 2000 years behind the times.
[e] Both practice eisegesis rather than exegesis.
<VBF> <very big frown>

It should be clear by now that the issue between Peter and Ian cannot be
settled by appeals to grammar or syntax alone. Since many of us probably
read this verse with our classes, can anyone imagine taking students through
the exchanges we have seen here? Why not leave it now, please!

If the text said BaRiShoNaH, dayyenu;
If the text said Be-ReShiT Bero' [see Gen 5.1], dayyenu;
If the LXX had an article, dayyenu;

I am certain that when the God who brought us out of Egypt first wrote this
verse, it did not reflect this terrible grammatical muddle. Something has
obviously been inserted by the Devil to keep us from reading the rest of the
Bible.

DAYYENU,
Charles





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