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b-hebrew - RE: Is R)$YT even a "time" word?

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  • From: "Paul Zellmer" <pzellmer AT sc.rr.com>
  • To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.metalab.unc.edu>
  • Subject: RE: Is R)$YT even a "time" word?
  • Date: Fri, 22 Mar 2002 23:25:22 -0500




> You haven't commented about whether you think br'$yt () will
> answer the question "when?" If it can, then you shouldn't be
> arguing. I think it can, just as the others I have used can.
>

Check two messages ago, and you will see that I did.

> As I have said, however, my argument is not solely based on the
> b-noun parallels, but also on the literary stucture of Gen 1,
> which no-one will face, and the comparison with other creation
> accounts, specifically from the Enuma Elish. Each points
> *separately* to the same conclusion: creation starts with "Let
> there be light."
>
Check about ten messages ago, and you will see that I said that many, if not
all, will agree that that is the first act of creation in Gen 1. You will
also see that I did say that vv 1 & 2 were setting the scene. I also stated
that I see 1:1-2:3 as introducing the rest of the book, because it does not
have TLDT formula. But just because 1:1-2 sets the scene, it does not
necessarily follow (nor is it even necessary) for those clause to be a
compound or complex grammatical unit on a level below discourse structure.

The computer shuts down now and goes into its "brain-bag". Catch you after
the trip.

Paul Zellmer





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