Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>]

Yes, I was thinking about the Gospel of Matthew
when I wrote my letter, or Gospel of Mark. There is
clearly Hebrew, not Greek, word order, in these Gospels,
and word order was one of the indeces of a Semitic vorlage.
There are others. It would be interesting to apply
the techniques Fox discusses on the books of the NT.

I simply meant that books were found in Hebrew or Aramaic
among the DSS whose earliest versions were previously
known only in Greek.

Liz

> -----Original Message-----
> From: c stirling bartholomew [mailto:cc.constantine AT worldnet.att.net]
> Sent: Mon, November 12, 2001 3:10 PM
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: Re: Septuagint or Hebrew Original Bible ?
>
>
> on 11/12/01 6:07 AM, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:
>
> > Even texts not in the MT, which were known for a long
> > time only in Greek,  are found to have had a Hebrew
> > origin with the discovery of the DSS.
>
> Liz,
>
> This is true of some texts but not of all. I don't believe that
> any "Hebrew
> originals" have surfaced for the major additions to Daniel (Susanna, Bel,
> etc.). Some folks have argued that one or more of these show evidence of a
> Hebrew vorlage, but I have heard the same arguments about the Gospel of
> Matthew.  When you consider the impact that a Jewish linguistic
> and cultural
> background would have on an author composing a book in Greek which was not
> his native language, the whole question of "Hebrew originals" becomes very
> complex. Until someone finds a few scraps of the "Hebrew originals" I will
> remain skeptical.
>
> greetings,
>
> Clay
>
>
> --
> Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
> Three Tree Point
> P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
>
>
>
> ---
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