Biblical Hebrew Forum

["weismann" <weismann AT fibertel.com.ar>]

Hi,

I didn't believe a friend told to me about the "fundamentalists": there're
not only within the Islamic and Christian trends ( I always agreed about)
but also within some Jewish "hasidim" ( I didn't believe that till I 've
read this message of Ms. Walker: she must be a woman of a grat faith!!)

Kindly,    Francis J. Weismann         weismann AT fibertel.com.ar
----- Original Message -----
From: "Shoshanna Walker" <rosewalk AT concentric.net>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Cc: <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Friday, November 02, 2001 5:08 PM
Subject: Re: Understanding the Word of G-d


> I don't know about the others, but this is not what I said.
>
> I said the Rabbinical commentaries, not Jewish authors.  Now I will
> clarify and say - the Classical, Mishnaic, Talmudic, Kabbalistic
> rabbinical commentaries.  Like Rashi, and Metzudat David, for
> instance.  People who learned and identified with a 5,000 year old
> tradition of handed down knowledge before it was put into writing.  I
> have no idea who U Cassuto is, and whether or not he is connected to
> that tradition.  I don't want to say bad things, but if I wanted an
> explanation of Torah, I probably wouldn't ask him.  Not everyone -
> just because he or she is Jewish - is an authority on Torah, one has
> to also examine if that person considers G-d his/her authority in
> life or not.  We all know too well that many Jews, not willing to
> submit themselves to G-d's authority or our tradition, do a lot to
> seek to undermine it.  (Not saying this about U Cassuto - but, as I
> said, I don't know who that is).
>
> What you quote:
> >`I am He Who has been, Who is now, and
> Who will be in the future.'   in any case is not a literal
> translation.  Here's another one:"I will be that which I will be".
> This explanation has far reaching religious/philosophical
> connotations.  If several out of hundreds of commentators choose to
> explain the words philosophically instead of literally, and if many
> modern Biblical scholar, Jewish or not Jewish, are removed from our
> 5,000 year old handed down tradition, and come to a consensus that
> they should translate it as "I am", that still does not mean that the
> word "Ehyeh" was NOT written down in future tense in the Torah.
>
> Shabbat Shalom
>
> Shoshanna
>
>
>
>
> >I know that Shoshanna Walker and others have taken the position that
Jewish
> >authors consistently translate "Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh" as future.
> >I would like some clarification because some of the references I thought
> >were Jewish disagreed.  For example, I believe U Cassuto who publihshed a
> >commentary on Exodus in 1967 through Magnes Press in Jerusalem was a
> >professor at the University of Jerusalem.  I assumed he was Jewish.   He
> >comments on Exodus 3:14 "The meaning assigned to it in our passage
> >corresponds to the present.  The form of the
> >verb that is called in Hebrew today `future' [i.e. the imperfect] could
> >signify in Biblical language any tense-past, present or future-and
> >approximated in some instances to the use of the `present' in Modern
> >Hebrew." (page 38).  Could someone please tell me what his background
was?
> >Also I note that the Ramban Commentary on the Torah seems to imply that
the
> >imperfect has an indefinite aspect of time when it comments,
> >"In a similar vein the Rabbis expounded: `Rabbi Yitzchak said that the
Holy
> >One, blessed be He, said to Moses: `I am He Who has been, Who is now, and
> >Who will be in the future.' This is why Eh'yeh is written here three
times."
> >(page 36)? Please tell me if I am misinterpreting this commentary.
> >I know that some Jewish authors have translated Ehyeh in the future
tense,
> >but I have not been able to support the belief that they all do.
Further, I
> >am not certain whether the insistence on the future tense comes from an
> >understanding of ancient Hebrew or if it is the result of modern usage.
As
> >I was taught the use of the imperfect tense, I would have interpreted
Ehyeh
> >to mean that the action is present and continues into the future.
> >Thank you for your help,
> >Michael Abernathy
> >mabernat AT cub.kcnet.org
> >
> >----- Original Message -----
> >From: "Mike Mallory" <mm9063067 AT yahoo.com>
> >To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
> >Sent: Thursday, November 01, 2001 10:55 AM
> >Subject: Understanding the Word of G-d
> >
> >
> > > I have a question about some translations that I have
> > > read. In Exodus 3:14 the JPS tranlation lists the
> > > phrase "Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh" as the phrasethat HaShem
> > > said to Mosie when He was speaking from the bruning
> > > bush. Here is the question --- Why do the Christin
> > > Translations (KJV, NKJV, NIV, NAS, and the JB) list
> > > this as "I am that I am."?
> > >
> > > I also wish to thank the staff for stoping the line of
> > > "spam mail" that I found both rude and offincive.
> > >
> > > Mike Mallory
> > >
> > > __________________________________________________
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