Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Michael Abernathy" <mabernat AT cub.kcnet.org>]

I know that Shoshanna Walker and others have taken the position that Jewish
authors consistently translate "Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh" as future.
I would like some clarification because some of the references I thought
were Jewish disagreed.  For example, I believe U Cassuto who publihshed a
commentary on Exodus in 1967 through Magnes Press in Jerusalem was a
professor at the University of Jerusalem.  I assumed he was Jewish.   He
comments on Exodus 3:14 "The meaning assigned to it in our passage
corresponds to the present.  The form of the
verb that is called in Hebrew today `future' [i.e. the imperfect] could
signify in Biblical language any tense-past, present or future-and
approximated in some instances to the use of the `present' in Modern
Hebrew." (page 38).  Could someone please tell me what his background was?
Also I note that the Ramban Commentary on the Torah seems to imply that the
imperfect has an indefinite aspect of time when it comments,
"In a similar vein the Rabbis expounded: `Rabbi Yitzchak said that the Holy
One, blessed be He, said to Moses: `I am He Who has been, Who is now, and
Who will be in the future.' This is why Eh'yeh is written here three times."
(page 36)? Please tell me if I am misinterpreting this commentary.
I know that some Jewish authors have translated Ehyeh in the future tense,
but I have not been able to support the belief that they all do.  Further, I
am not certain whether the insistence on the future tense comes from an
understanding of ancient Hebrew or if it is the result of modern usage.  As
I was taught the use of the imperfect tense, I would have interpreted Ehyeh
to mean that the action is present and continues into the future.
Thank you for your help,
Michael Abernathy
mabernat AT cub.kcnet.org

----- Original Message -----
From: "Mike Mallory" <mm9063067 AT yahoo.com>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Thursday, November 01, 2001 10:55 AM
Subject: Understanding the Word of G-d


> I have a question about some translations that I have
> read. In Exodus 3:14 the JPS tranlation lists the
> phrase "Ehyeh-Asher-Ehyeh" as the phrasethat HaShem
> said to Mosie when He was speaking from the bruning
> bush. Here is the question --- Why do the Christin
> Translations (KJV, NKJV, NIV, NAS, and the JB) list
> this as "I am that I am."?
>
> I also wish to thank the staff for stoping the line of
> "spam mail" that I found both rude and offincive.
>
> Mike Mallory
>
> __________________________________________________
> Do You Yahoo!?
> Make a great connection at Yahoo! Personals.
> http://personals.yahoo.com
>
> ---
> You are currently subscribed to b-hebrew as: [mabernat AT cub.kcnet.org]
> To unsubscribe, forward this message to
$subst('Email.Unsub')
> To subscribe, send an email to join-b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu.
>
>