Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Jadkins26438 AT cs.com]

In a message dated 8/24/2001 4:39:16 AM Eastern Daylight Time, 
Peter_Kirk AT sil.org writes:


> Re the NT evidence, one thing you are missing is that Matthew has not simply
> preferred "kingdom of heaven" in his own writing, he has in many places
> changed "kingdom of God" in his presumed underlying sources into "kingdom of
> heaven", as witnessed in parallel passages in Mark and Luke. Or, less
> probably, "kingdom of heaven" was original and Mark and Luke changed it to
> "kingdom of God".
>
> Another clear NT example of "heaven" being used in place of "God" is Luke
> 15:18,21, where the returning Prodigal Son confesses his sin "against
> heaven".
>
> I guess we can only speculate on the reasons for these changes.


It should also be noted that Matthew uses 'Kingdom of God' 4 times, while he 
has all 31 occurrences of 'Kingdom of Heaven' in the NT.  I also don't think 
the reason for this change is clearly evident.  Although many I have read do 
speculate that it is out of respect for his Jewish audience, Matthews reason 
is not clearly stated.  Some have suggested, what seems even more unlikely to 
me, the two terms are not synonymous.  There may be alternatives we have yet 
to consider as to Matthews choice, beyond mere stylistic preference.  
Possibly, emphasis?

At any rate I am not convinced this is evidence for the avoidance of the 
divine name.

Sola Gratia,
         Jay Adkins
Always Under Grace!