Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Daniel Wagner" <dan.wagner AT netzero.net>]

----- Original Message ----- 
From: David Stabnow <dstabno AT lifeway.com>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Thursday, August 23, 2001 8:51 AM
Subject: Re: traditions regarding tetragrammaton?


> 
> If the one LXX MS reflects the original (which would make sense in
> context), the others are attempts to mitigate the language regarding the
> Name.

Interesting point, since i think the LXX itself may be evidence of translator 
with "traditions" to protect the name YHWH since it usually kurios rather 
than a transliteration. It seems like i recall someone posting here within 
the past few months and saying that originally LXX (and NT!) MSS had a 
transliteration of Yahweh but that later scribes replaced it with kurios. 
Does anyone know of evidence for this? It would not seem likely to me, since 
we have some pretty early LXX MSS evidence (some pre-Christian), which i 
don't think have a transliterated name.

The fact that both LXX and scribal evidence in MT and DSS all seem to point 
to influence from these "traditions" would seem to indicate that they were 
late and not original at the time of composition of the HB.

Regarding "kingdom of heaven" (mostly Matthew) vs. "kingdom of God" (common 
elsewhere in NT), do we really have any evidence that this was intended to 
avoid the word _theos_ with Jews, or was it simply diversity of authors' 
preferences? Why would Matthew not want to say "kingdom of God" when he used 
_theos_ in plenty of other contexts? And why avoid "kingdom of God" which is 
not the same as "kingdom of Yahweh" anyway? I don't see that this NT evidence 
(mostly just in Matthew) is very strong. Am i missing something?

Dan Wagner


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