Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Liz Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>]

Dear Bryan, et. all.

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Bryan Rocine 
> 
> 
> B-Haverim,
> 
> Am I missing something?  Rashi suggested amending bara' to
> baro'?
> 
> My Rashi reads this way:  "...for the word _re'shit_ never
> appears in Scripture except when it is annexed to the
> following word... Here, too you must interpret 'In the
> beginning Elohim created' as if [it were written] 'At the
> beginning of the creating.' 
This is the baro'.

 [We find] similarly, _texilat
> dibber yhwh behoshea`_ Hos 1:2 as if to say 'At    the
> beginning of God's speaking to Hoshea...'"
> It seems to me he accepts both the qatals bara' and dibber.

The commentary I have on Hosea keeps the Rashi in
Rashi script, which unfortunately I have not learned to read (yet).
The translation says "But the simple meaning of the verse is:
At the beginning of the speech which the Holy One, blessed be He,
spoke to Hosea, he said this to him."
So again, here we have dibber not interpreted as a finite verb,
but the phrase is again adverbial, time when. The first finite
verb is vay'omer.

I haven't looked up all the verses you cite of a finite verb
preceded by a construct. I did look up the first one in 
Leviticus. I didn't check the Rashi, but Milgrom suggested
interpolating an "asher."  I don't understand how a finite
verb can be preceded by a noun in construct, but would
hate to argue they should all be emmended.
Do the grammars address this? I couldn't find a reference 
to it in the ones I have.

Best,
Liz
> 

> 
> Shalom,
> Bryan
> 
> 
> B. M. Rocine
> Associate Pastor
> Living Word Church
> 6101 Court St. Rd.
> Syracuse, NY 13206
> 
> (office) 315-437-6744
> (home) 315-479-8267
> 
> 
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