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b-hebrew - Re: Gen 2:17: Dying thou shalt die

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  • From: "Peter Kirk" <Peter_Kirk AT sil.org>
  • To: "Bill Ross" <wross AT farmerstel.com>, "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Gen 2:17: Dying thou shalt die
  • Date: Mon, 21 Aug 2000 14:19:44 +0100


This idiom is common in legal material, though mostly in the third person. I
found the following examples, looking at the Pentateuch only: GEN 2:17;
26:11; EXO 19:12; 21:12,15,16,17; 22:18; 31:14,15; LEV
20:2,9,12,13,15,16,27; 24:16,17; 27:29; NUM 15:35; 26:65; 35:16,17,18. These
occurrences in legal texts seem to make clear that the meaning is a definite
death penalty. And of course this is the regular meaning of such idioms with
the infinite absolute.

Peter Kirk

----- Original Message -----
From: "Bill Ross" <wross AT farmerstel.com>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Saturday, August 19, 2000 10:02 PM
Subject: Gen 2:17: Dying thou shalt die


> <Bill>
> The literal of Gen 2:17 seems to be:
>
> ...dying thou shalt die...
>
> which is generally translated "thou shalt surely die"
>
> * is this a fairly certain translation? could it be taken unidiomatically?
>
> * does the construct appear elsewhere in Scripture?
>
> * does anyone respectable champion another reading?
>
> Thanks for any help,
>
> Bill Ross
>
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