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b-hebrew - Re: Ps 119:163 - a "cohortative" wayyiqtol?

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  • From: KELowery AT cs.com
  • To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Ps 119:163 - a "cohortative" wayyiqtol?
  • Date: Wed, 23 Feb 2000 09:54:03 EST


----- Original Message -----
From: "Henry Churchyard" <churchh AT usa.net>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Monday, February 21, 2000 4:17 PM
Subject: Re: Ps 119:163 - a "cohortative" wayyiqtol?


> > Subject: Re: Ps 119:163 - a "cohortative" wayyiqtol?
> > From: "Dale M. Wheeler" <dalemw AT teleport.com>
> > Date: Sat, 19 Feb 2000 18:15:44 -0800
>
> > Remember that strange double suffix tagged form, the first word in
> > Gen 12:3 that we discussed some time back - WA):ABFR:AKFH ?? Starts
> > with a patach and has the -FH suffix as well...is this a parallel ?
>
> I'm not sure what's strange about this form (except that in manuscript
> L it has a _h.at.eph-pathah._, indicating vocal sh@wa, in a position
> where silent sh@wa would be expected; but that's really not all that
> rare).
>
> Perhaps you mean 27:7 _wa'abarek@kah_; this form might be considered
> to contain two slight anomalies (phonologically _s@ghol_,
> orthographically final _he_), but I'm not sure it's really all that
> strange either.

Henry, the question is about the final -FH in Gen 12:3. Is it marking a
cohortative meaning? If so, then it is parallel to the form in Ps 119:163.
What
is interesting is that in Gen 12:2 the three preceeding finite verbs are
simple
futures, not wayyiqtols. BRK also is present with the accusative 2ms
pronominal
suffix. That would make it very hard to understand this one as wayyiqtol. But
it
is equally hard to understand what is meant if it cohortative is what is
meant.
Why the shift from future to modal?

As for Gen 27:7, I interpret the final -FH as part of the 2ms suffix with a he
representing the qamets of the suffix. With the preceeding imperatives in the
verb chain, it's tempting to understand WA':ABFREK:KFH to be cohortative. If
so,
it's not because of the final -FH. The two kaphs prevent that interpretation,
seems to me. Morphologically/phonologically, is it even possible to think of
the
final -FH as doing double duty for both the 2ms suffix and the paragogic he?

Maybe we ought to ask our guru of the wayyiqtol. Rolf, what's your opinion?

(1) Is the form in Ps 119:163 wayyiqtol, future, or cohortative?

(2) For the unambiguous 1cs wayyiqtols with final -FH in the Hebrew Bible,
what
do you think is going on? Is it purely "euphonic," or is there some emic
distinction that our translation/interpretation should take into account?

Blessings,

Kirk
________________________________________________________
Kirk E. Lowery, Ph.D. Email: klowery AT wts.edu
Associate Director Phone: 215-572-3854
The Westminster Hebrew Institute Fax: 215-887-5511
Westminster Theological Seminary
P.O. Box 27,009
Philadelphia, PA 19118









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