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b-hebrew - Re: Alma, Parthenos, Virgin

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  • From: Joseph Crea <Joseph.Crea AT worldnet.att.net>
  • To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: Alma, Parthenos, Virgin
  • Date: Sat, 30 Oct 1999 00:42:02 -0500


Hello again, Ken!

At 10:16 PM 10/29/99 -0700, Ken Litwak wrote:

>KEN
>I want to return to the Hebrew text and its early translation. I am
>still looking for analysis that shows that
>a) almah cannot mean virgin or that no reader would have guessed that in
>Isa 7:14 it meant that.
>b) That there could not have been a Greek translation before Matthew's
>Gospel that rendered almah as parthnos anywhere, not just in Isaiah.

CREA
Well, my handy-dandy copy of the Hatch-Redpath __Concordance to the
Septuagint__, mentions that there is only one other passage where
"parthenos" (or some derivative thereof) is used to represent "almah", and
that's at Gen. 24:43. It is otherwise invariably represented by either
"neanis" or "neotEs" or deriviatives of the same. Hope that this helps.


With Mettaa,

Joseph Crea
<Joseph.Crea AT worldnet.att.net>

With Mettaa,

Joseph Crea
<Joseph.Crea AT worldnet.att.net>



>c) Tha tMatthew is actually guilty of violating the semantic domain of
>almah by using parthenos.
>These threee issus are not theological and seem to me to be legitimate,
>scholarly questions. While it's not possible for anyone to ever say
>anything that is free of their world view, I think these three things,
>especially the satisical question, isrelatively more objective and more
>related to the subject of this list, as opposed to speculation that
>Matthew deceivd is readers with a clearly incorrect rndering. The
>evidence in TOv's book on textual criticism, among others, is convincing
>I think that both the Hebrew text and the LXX were still in a state of
>flux in the first century AD.
>
>Ken Litwak
>





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