Biblical Hebrew Forum

[peter_kirk AT sil.org]

This is an interesting test and one which has the possibility of 
helping to understand wayyiqtol better. But I wonder how we can be 
sure of the "uncontroversial" nature of any examples. For example, 
suppose someone found a (hypothetical) parallel to Gen 38:28 in which 
a wayyiqtol of YLD is used for "give birth", and cited that as 
evidence for imperfective wayyiqtol. Could someone else disprove that 
by saying that (in this context at least) the wayyiqtol of YLD means 
"began to give birth", just as in Numbers 25:1 the wayyiqtol means 
"began to dwell" rather than "dwelled". Is there a clear distinction 
between the verbs "give birth" and "dwell" in this respect? How can 
you explain it clearly? I don't think I am understanding the point you 
are making with "+telic".

Even so, there may be a problem e.g. with your sentences 1a, 1b. 
Reading a paper is presumably +telic in that it has a defined finish 
point. So would a hypothetical Hebrew version of your 1a or 1b using 
wayyiqtol for "read" be an uncontroversial example of imperfective 
wayyiqtol or not? Or could this be taken as "began to read"? I am 
reminded that the Russian imperfective "chitat'" ("to read") has I 
think three perfectives,

1) "prochitat'" = "read through to the end"
2) "pochitat'" = "read for a bit"
3) "zachitat'" = "begin to read".

Now you wouldn't use any perfective for your 1a or 1b in Russian, but 
a sentence without a conjunction "I began to read (zachital) the 
paper, John entered" would have the same meaning although the verb is 
perfective and the Aktionsart is at least potentially +telic. Or am I 
confused here?

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator 
_________________________________
Subject: Perfectivity of wayyiqtol
Author:  <manstey AT portal.ca> at Internet
Date:    15/10/1999 17:44


GDay all,

Comrie, Dik, de Groot and other linguists say that a very good criterion for 
determining whether a verbal form is perfectiveor not is whether the 
situation presented can be interrupted by another situation. For example:

1a.     While I was reading the paper, John entered. 
1b.     I was reading the paper when John entered.

In languages like Hungarian where perfectivity is grammaticised it is 
impossible to have the perfective verb form for 'was reading' in the above 
sentences.

My question is if anyone can find an uncontroversial case of a wayyiqtol 
(excluding wayhi) in BH narrative that is used in an Imperfective use (ie 
'was reading' use). By uncontroversial I mean that it is not possible to 
modify the Aktionsart to turn a stative wayyiqtol into a bounded 
accomplishment to account for an supposedly "interrupted" wayyiqtol. Let me 
illustrate:

An uncontroversial non-wayyiqtol case is Gen 38.28, "While she was giving 
birth (wayhi + inf. cnst), he put out his hand." The event of the hand being 
put out must occur during the larger event of the birthing process (which is 
+telic).

A "supposed" interrupted wayyiqtol however in Num 25.1 "While Israel was 
dwelling in Shittim, the people began to adulterate with Moabite women." can 
be modified to make it uninterrupted by interpreting an ingressive aspect 
operating on the unbounded verb yashab to give, "And Israel settled in 
Shittim and the people began to adulterate...". These sort of sentences 
should be ruled out as potential wayyiqtol imperfectives for this reason.

So does anyone know of an uncontroversial case of wayyiqtol presenting a 
situation that is then interrupted?

With regards,
Matthew Anstey