Biblical Hebrew Forum

[John Ronning <ronning AT nis.za>]

> Peter wrote:
> This is an interesting test and one which has the possibility of
> helping to understand wayyiqtol better. But I wonder how we can be
> sure of the "uncontroversial" nature of any examples. For example,
> suppose someone found a (hypothetical) parallel to Gen 38:28 in which
> a wayyiqtol of YLD is used for "give birth", and cited that as
> evidence for imperfective wayyiqtol. Could someone else disprove that
> by saying that (in this context at least) the wayyiqtol of YLD means
> "began to give birth", just as in Numbers 25:1 the wayyiqtol means
> "began to dwell" rather than "dwelled". Is there a clear distinction
> between the verbs "give birth" and "dwell" in this respect? How can
> you explain it clearly? I don't think I am understanding the point you
> are making with "+telic".
>

I agree with Peter that there's a problem with the methodology which can 
seemingly explain away all
potential counter-examples.  E.g. Genesis 35:16 Then they journeyed from 
Bethel; and when there
was still some distance to go to Ephrath, Rachel began to give birth 
(watteled) and she suffered
severe labor (watteqash belidtah).  And when she was in severe labor the 
midwife said to her...
If it said "while she was giving birth" with something other than wayyiqtol 
would you call it
"non-controversial non-perfective" ?

Regards,

John