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  • From: peter_kirk AT sil.org
  • To: <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re[2]: The "times" of Isaiah
  • Date: Wed, 18 Aug 1999 14:23:48 -0400


I must disagree with the quoted sentence. In Turkish there is a
timeless tense (called "aorist", but very different from the Greek
aorist) which is used for generic examples etc and does not imply any
C, RT and ET context. And how about so called tenseless languages? As
pointed out recently, they have their means of indicating time context
where necessary, but are you claiming that they add such a time
indication even when it is not necessary? It could well be that Hebrew
works more like Turkish in this respect.

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator
_________________________________
Subject: Re: The "times" of Isaiah
Author: zellmer AT digitelone.com at internet
Date: 16/08/1999 11:05


Rolf,

<snip>

I would agree that all languages put these portions, the ones that focus
on something other than the relative timing of its elements to each other
and to the speaker/hearer, into some C, RT, and ET context.

<snip>





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