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  • From: Rolf Furuli <furuli AT online.no>
  • To: b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re[2]: The "times" of Isaiah
  • Date: Sun, 22 Aug 1999 22:47:06 +0200


Dear Peter,

I looked once more at all the YIQTOLs of )MR that I claimed to be future. I
reached the same conclusion as before and found only one example which is
possibly modal (1 Sam 20:7). What is a "future pragmatic context"? I have
never heard that term before. Does this term mean that you claim that RT
does not come after C in the mentioned examples?


Regards
Rolf


Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo



>Dear Rolf,
>
>I don't have time to look at all of this now. But let's look at your
>supposedly obvious examples that the YIQTOL of )MR has future meaning.
>For a start, by your own methodology they do not, they merely have a
>future pragmatic context. There is in fact nothing to show that there
>is any time-related component to their meaning. Some of them seem to
>be primarily modal rather than future anyway.
>
>But how can you possibly make the logical jump from "YIQTOL of )MR has
>future meaning" to "QATAL of )MR does not have future meaning"? This
>seems to me totally logically fallacious, at the very most a rather
>weak possibility which you have elsewhere taken as a major support for
>your theory. Or have I missed something?
>
>Peter Kirk
>
>
>______________________________ Reply Separator
>_________________________________
>Subject: Re: The "times" of Isaiah
>Author: furuli AT online.no at internet
>Date: 19/08/1999 10:25
>
><snip>
>
>I will use CH )MR as an example. I looked at all the 499 examples of this
>expression in the Bible and found that all YIQTOLs of )MR (except three in
>conditional clauses,1 Sam 14:9;20:22; 2 Sam 15:26) have future meaning. How
>did I reach that conclusion? Simply by taking a quick look at the context;
>you need no model for that. Just look at them yourself: Gen 32:5;50:17, Ex
>3:14;19:3; 20:22; 1 Sam 11;9; 18:25;20:7; 2 Sam 7:8;11:25;19:10; Is 37:10;
>Jer 21:3; 23:35,37; 2 chr 10:10. In addition to these, the following
>examples have a YIQTOL and a QATAL of )MR in the same verse, the YIQTOLs
>having future meaning: GEN 32:5; 2 SAM 7:8:19:6; 2 Kings 22:18; Is 37:6;
>27:4; Jer 37:7;45:4; Ezek 33:27. 1 Chr 17:7; 2 Chr 34:26.
>
>The information above suggests that the QATAL of )MR does not have future
>meaning, and that in exclamations with KH it was not natural to use the
>YIQTOL form with present meaning (though this is done in other contexts).
>The QATAL form of )MR, therefore, will either have a RT before C (past
>meaning), or a RT coinciding with C (perfect, or present). But how can we
>know?
>
><snip>
>
>






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