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  • From: "Paul Zellmer" <zellmer AT digitelone.com>
  • To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT franklin.oit.unc.edu>
  • Subject: Re: The "times" of Isaiah
  • Date: Wed, 18 Aug 1999 22:06:21 +0800


True, Solomon. I believe Rolf was asking about vv 12-17. I just used
my response to you to make this statement because the subject was a
continuation of the thread in which Rolf asked the question.

Pardon my laziness. I should have made that more clear.

Paul

> Isaiah 44:2, 6 and similar in Hebrew, )MAR YHWH in the LXX is LEGEI
KURIOS, with
> "legei" being present indicative active: "He is saying, he says,"
i.e., "Thus says
> [YHWH]."
>
> Solomon Landers
> Memra Institute for Biblical Research
> http://www.memrain.org
>
> Paul Zellmer wrote:
>
> > Solomon,
> >
> > Although I argued that the Hebrew treats this as past-time, I trust
you
> > do realize that I do not disagree with Rolf on how the term would
best
> > be translated into English and other European languages. I think
his
> > understanding of the force of the introductory phrase is right on.
> >
> > Having said that: Rolf, you asked about translations that treated
this
> > passage as past time. I just glanced at the LXX (my greek has
become
> > too rusty to sight-read, since I have concentrated on Hebrew now for
the
> > past few years), but it seems to me as if the verbs are aorist or
> > possibly imperfect there. Will that do as an example?
> >
> > Paul Zellmer
> >
>
>
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