Biblical Hebrew Forum

[peter_kirk AT SIL.ORG]

Yes, but what makes you think that Hebrew is any less of a mixture of 
different influences, or any other real human language for that 
matter? I guess that the ones which are not a mixture are either 
artificial or have had artificial rules imposed on them by grammarians 
and stylists. Maybe languages spoken on isolated islands have 
preserved more purity of some sort. Hebrew does not fit these special 
cases, though there may have been rather artificial conventions in use 
for particular styles.

Peter Kirk


______________________________ Reply Separator 
_________________________________
Subject: Re: wayyiqtol vs. English
Author:  dwashbur AT nyx.net at internet 
Date:    03/03/1999 20:01


Galia wrote:
> Moon-RyulJung wrote:
>      Until I see a strong evidence for Galia's assumption that wayyiqtol 
> is different from English simple past (minus stative verbs)...
>
>      Most of the examples I gave to show that the simple past in English 
> does not necessarily build a new R-time were, indeed, stative clauses.
> However, recall that I showed that in certain contexts the second clause in 
> (1) below may be understood NOT to move the time forward, although it is
> eventive. But consider also (2) with two different agents: 
>
>      1. Mary entered the room. She turned the light on...
>      2. (Yesteraday) John finished his article and Mary started her book.

Yes, so the simple past in English can perform a multitude of 
functions wrt R-time, it would seem.  I believe this is because 
English is a "mixed" language (I usually say a "slumgullian 
language" but that's awfully idiomatic for a forum such as this!) 
whose syntax is a patchwork of various influences from here, there 
and everywhere.  For this reason, I have suspected for a long time 
that English is a lousy language one which to base a theory of 
synatx because it behaves so erratically.

Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
A Bible that's falling apart means a life that isn't.

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