Kata Markon

[Steve Black <sblack AT axionet.com>]

I recall this being discussed, but I don't recall the outcome.

Why is the "young man" (clothed) in 16:5 not to be equated with the 
young man (naked) of 14:51?
It seems a plausible enough possibility.

Another question.
Much has been made of the women's failure at the end of the gospel 
(...and they said nothing...). One common strategy I've heard is that 
Mark intends the reader  to understand this as only a temporary 
failure, otherwise not only would the twelve never find out about the 
resurrection, but (more crucially)  Mark himself would never have 
found out. Has the young man been considered as an option (intended 
by Mark within the context of the reader's imagination) as a source 
of this information? Having got there before the women, perhaps his 
witness is to be considered superior. This involves a great deal of 
speculation, but it seems that due to the nature of the material, 
speculation may not be avoidable.

Any thoughts?
--
Peace

Steve Black
Vancouver, BC