Kata Markon

["George Young" <gwyoung AT morgan.ucs.mun.ca>]

J. Gibson wrote:

> I think you might have to explain that [i.e., why Mark has to explain
Jewish traditions to his readers] to Paul >who, writing earlier than AMark,
to Roman Christians could and does assume much much more in this regard.

Well, since Paul is long dead, this would be a formidable task indeed.  My
suspicion, however, is that when Paul wrote to the Romans, the Roman Church
may have still been predominately made up of Jewish Christians, or Paul may
have underestimated the large Gentile population of the Church (after all,
he had never been to Rome at the time).  Whereas Mark, writing from Rome (if
indeed this is the case), would have been much more informed of his
audience.

> As those on the List who are familiar with my JSNTS 1993 article on the
Markan
> version of Jesus Wilderness "Temptation" story and my book on the
"temptation"
> traditions" know, I  have grave doubts that your assertion about the
nature of
> the wilderness PEIRASMOS not being spelled out in correct.  And it seems
to me
> that the way you write about the nature of the other "tests" that Jesus is
said
> to experience and/or be subjected to in GMark indicates that you have
> misunderstood my understanding of what PEIRAZW and PEIRASMOS mean in
GMark --
> not an academic test but a proving of faithfulness.

My apologies, if I misunderstood.  Although, my references to PEIRASMOS in
GMark, along with brief observations, were simply intended to highlight the
paucity of its occurances in Mark  (where Jesus is concerned)  as well as
the allusive or problematic nature of at least two of those occurances (1:13
& 10:2) (that is, in my own view).  I do not suggest that your reading of
PEIRASMOS in these instances is incorrect; but I wanted to highlight the
passages because you seem - if I understand you correctly - to place great
emphasis upon this particular word, and assign it a narrow band of meaning -
to the exclusion of others.   Have you managed, or, do you see any relevence
to investigating the other Greek words that may include/imply nuances of
"tempt," "trial," "test" and so forth within Mark, albeit in a 'defeated'
sense (e.g., EPITHUMIA in Mark 4:19)?      Also, just out of interest, do
you see any worth in investigating the Latin equivalents to PEIRASMOS, e.g.,
TEMPTA?

Sincerely,

George W. Young, PhD
Assistant Professor of Biblical Studies
Queen's College Faculty of Theology
210 Prince Philip Drive
St. John's  NF
CANADA   A1B 3R6
Tel. (709) 753-0116
Fax. (709) 753-1214
email: gwyoung AT morgan.ucs.mun.ca