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  • From: "Ian Scott" <iscott AT tyndale.ca>
  • To: "corpus-Paul" <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] [biblical-studies] I cor 16:22
  • Date: Wed, 02 May 2007 13:02:20 -0400

Interesting, Jim. I wonder, though, whether anathema on its own
functioned as a curse for Paul or whether later church curse formulae
reflect a misunderstanding of Paul's particular juxtaposition in 1 Cor
16:22?

We have to start with the evidence in early Christian lit. that the
acclamation "come Lord (Jesus)" was a common liturgical phrase, probably
expressing eschatological hope (e.g., Rev 22:20). If (as I suspect)
there is no other first century evidence of such an expression being
used for cursing, then 1 Cor 16:22 is thin ground for thinking that Paul
intended the expression as a curse. It is in the final epilogue of 1
Cor, in which (as you know) we often find Paul employing apparently
liturgically-styled blessings or prayer formulae. In this section of a
letter Paul also often seems to set very brief exhortations, blessings,
etc. side-by-side without a great deal of connection between them. So we
cannot assume in 1 Cor 16:22 that Paul intended any close connection
between the curse and the liturgical acclamation (maranatha) which
follows it. If we see a connection, it might well be that the maranatha
is Paul's demonstration of his own "love for the Lord," following on the
curse against those who lack such love. All of this is to say that it is
easy to see why the later church would have used maranatha in curses
(any why Luther would have heard this nuance in the expression), but
that I don't think this practice should carry much weight for our
interpretation of 1 Cor 16:22.

My two cents,

Ian

Ian W. Scott, Ph.D. (McMaster)
Assistant Professor of New Testament
Tyndale Seminary
Toronto, Canada
email: iscott AT tyndale.ca
url: http://www.ian-w-scott.com
===================================
The Online Critical Pseudepigrapha
http://www.purl.org/net/ocp

>>> Jim West <jwest AT highland.net> 5/2/2007 12:42 PM >>>
Further, this bit from TDNT

It is found more frequently in later ecclesiastical use, often with
ἀνάθεμα, to give weight to a solemn curse. There is always quotation
from, or allusion to, 1 C. 16:22. Thus in a Christian burial inscr.
from Salamis (either 4th or 5th cent., CIG, IV, 9303) we read: (Whoever

lays another corpse in this grave between the two who rest here) …
ἀνάθεμα ἤτω· μαραναθάν. Cf. also the canon of the Fourth Council of
Toledo (633 a.d.): qui contra hanc nostram definitionem praesumpserit,

anathema maranatha hoc est, perditio in adventu domini sit (can. 75).


So 'maranatha' does seem to have functioned as a curse. That's quite
contrary to the usual explanation.

--
Jim West, ThD

http://drjewest.googlepages.com/ -- Biblical Studies Resources
http://drjimwest.wordpress.com -- Weblog
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