Corpus-Paul

[Siu Fung Wu <siufung.wu AT worldvision.com.au>]

Hi Listers,

I wonder whether someone can help me with these questions.

Romans 8:35 lists a few types of suffering (that cannot separate us from
the love of Christ), which include persecution, famine, nakedness, danger
and sword.

Some commentators think that Paul has the eschatological woes in mind. And
there is a tendency to think that Paul is referring "specifically" to his
and the church's sufferings, because we can find parallels in Paul's
writings elsewhere (such as 2 Cor 4 and 11). For example, famine (or
hunger) and nakedness can be found in 2 Cor 11:27.

But I wonder whether Romans 8:35 in fact refers to suffering "in general",
although the persecution faced by Paul and the church is not far from the
apostle's mind. By "general" I mean that the suffering is not specifically
due to the preaching of the gospel (ie. due to an action/activity of
Christian). Also, I wonder whether Paul has in mind to answer the
interlocutor's questions in light of OT deuteronomic history, where sin
would lead to suffering but obedience would lead to peace and prosperity.

My thoughts are: Paul is thinking of the suffering of the righteous in
Romans 8. There is no condemnation for those in Christ, but the question is
why the Christian community - both Jews and Gentiles - are still suffering.
The answer is that, until the consummation of the new age, the righteous
still have to suffer - a concept found in the OT, with Job's suffering
being a prime example.

Hunger/famine and sword are common forms of suffering in the ancient world.
But specifically famine and sword are covenantal curses (in Deut) and are
warnings of the prophets (e.g. Jeremiah). Paul's audience must be asking
how come they are still suffering from famine (e.g. famine in the Jerusalem
area) and/or sword (e.g. occupation by the Roman empire), which are
seemingly judgement from God. If Jesus' death and resurrection signifies
the new age of peace and prosperity, how come famine and sword are still
around? Paul has to address this question somehow, given the fact that he
has argued that there is no longer condemnation for those in Christ.

I certainly am not an expert in this area, but I hope this makes some
sense.

Thank you,
Siu Fung Wu
Melbourne, Australia


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