Corpus-Paul

["Mitternacht Dieter" <dieter.mitternacht AT teol.lu.se>]

Richard,

 

 

Richard wrote:
Dieter, perhaps I can be more specific. Why, for example, did Paul write that he did not meet any other apostle, except James (1:19)? And why did he write that he did not go up to Jerusalem (1:17)? I don't see how Paul's statements like these would serve the purpose of convincing the readers that he never vacillated. If they do, then they are too subtle for me, and probably too subtle for the Galatians, I think. Or have I misunderstood you, Dieter?

Dieter resonds:

I suppose we agree that Paul is very concerned with demonstrating that he received HIS gospel independently through revelation. Thus, he makes every effort to communicate that very point (e.g. "immediately I did not go to Jerusalem"). Paul's rhetorical purpose, I think, is to demonstrate, that from the very beginning he had his own authority ("not from men"). And when he reports of his going to Jerusalem after all (for diplomatic reasons), he makes it very clear that he was not shifting gear in any way. Instead, through confrontation and information, in the end  the others accepted his authority. I still believe (as I have argued in my dissertation) that a careful analysis of Gal 2.6-10 shows that the agreement is very shaky. But as long as you "just hear" the letter and grasp the wording somewhat superficially the matter seems clear. Paul's authority is validated by the Jerusalem pillars.

 

If you add to this the curses in 1:8-9,  the report of the "not yeilding for a moment" to the false brethren in Jerusalem, and the open confrontation of Peter and Baranbas at Antioch, I find it hard to see how anyone can not see that Paul's point is to show that he never vacillated and was ready to face any conflict for the sake of the gospel.

 

Dieter