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  • From: "Tim Gallant" <tim AT timgallant.org>
  • To: "Corpus-Paul" <corpus-paul AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [Corpus-Paul] Protestant Justification vs OT and Romans
  • Date: Tue, 1 Feb 2005 19:46:43 -0700

Tim Gallant wrote:

John and Jim,

No time to respond in detail. Let me just say this:

(1) Paul thinks eschatologically, which means that he doesn't reinvent everything, but it also means dramatic newness. We should not expect that he completely redefines the tzedekah/dikaiosune terminology.


tzedekah means righteousness- rightness- not "justification".

I know what tzedekah means. And I also know what "to justify" means, and that it corresponds to justification. Both the OT and the NT employ the cognates in relation to one another.

Now: In that context, what is "justification"? Justification is when God relieves His people from their misery and says that the sins which have hung over them collectively are forgiven ("comfort, comfort My people....").

What support do you have for this interpretative move? How do you equate "justification" with "comfort"? What is your justification for such an understanding?

The entire context of the latter part of Isaiah as a courtroom setting, which promises an eschatological vindication of God's people.

(4) Because Paul has a representative view of Messiah,


What's that mean?

His Christology is incorporative. Christ dies representatively and is raised representatively.

he insists that Jesus has been raised "because of" our justification (Rom 4.25).


Huh? Jesus was raised "because of" our "justifiaction? I thought it was "for". Where does Paul say Jesus was raised because we are justified?

I just gave you the reference: Romans 4.25 (English translations notwithstanding).

That means that the emancipation, the triumph in the great battle of cosmic justice (for that is what Isaiah is about)


Oh not hardly. Isaiah is about? well, it depends on which passage you are talking about. The blanket claim that Isaiah is "about" cosmic justice is a gross generalization without substance.

Finally, I'm still wondering after the Hebrew word which you would translate "justification". I know it can't be tzedekah.

I never said it was. But I do insist that you cannot just assume that cognates are unrelated. Think of Paul's use of the term "gospel." Where is the noun form in the OT? He's drawing it from the verbal form. I suggest that something very similar is going on with the "righteous(ness)" words.

Gotta go. Sorry to be so brief and well, curt.

tim


Tim Gallant
Pastor, Conrad Christian Reformed Church

http://www.timgallant.org
tim | gallant site group





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