Corpus-Paul

[Loren Rosson <rossoiii AT yahoo.com>]

[Moon]
>On the other hand, if the "God is one"
>argument is sufficient, why would Paul take
>pains pointing out that those
>of the law do not have any advantage with
>respect to being "righteoused"?

I think that in writing to a church where sentiments
of Gentile superiority existed, Paul wanted to be
sensitive to how the Jewish people were at once
"better" and "the same" as Gentile people -- depending
on from which angle you considered the "law" problem.
Again, from the perspective of the Moses/law epoch
(3:1-2), there is no question who was ahead, and that
is why a kernel of the Mosaic tradition must still be
fulfilled (3:21-31). But from the perspective of the
Adam/sin epoch, both peoples were clearly on the same
ground (Rom 3:1-20), even if in different ways.

Loren Rosson III
Nashua NH
rossoiii AT yahoo.com

__________________________________________________
Do you Yahoo!?
Yahoo! Mail Plus - Powerful. Affordable. Sign up now.
http://mailplus.yahoo.com