Corpus-Paul

[Loren Rosson <rossoiii AT yahoo.com>]

Moon wrote:

> In summary, the works of the law does not
> "righteous" man because God is the God of
> Jews and Gentiles, but the works of the law
> are things that only the Jews can do [3:28-30].
> But, on the ther hand, the works of the law
> does not "righteous" man
> because the law condemns those who are in the law
> and the whole world by giving the knowledge
> of sin [3:19-20]...Why would Paul
> bring in another "God is one" argument
> [in 3:28-30] that the works of the law are only
> Jewish things and so cannot be the common
> ground for being "righteoused"?

Moon,

I think that Rom 3:1-20 is as much a "God is One"
argument as the argument of Rom 3:21-31. Vv 19-20 make
the point that Jews stand on the same ground as
Gentiles for being under the epoch of Adam and sin --
even if they are better than Gentiles for being under
the epoch of Moses and law. If you keep in mind the
segue from Rom 3:1-2 ("Moses and law") to 3:9 ("Adam
and sin"), Paul's logic in 3:19-20 ("Adam and sin")
makes perfect sense. The Torah speaks to those under
it (the Jewish people) and reveals the knowledge of
sin (to the Jewish people) -- and in so doing, reminds
that the power of sin reigns over them as much as the
Gentile nations, even if Israel's situation isn't
"quite as dire" as that of Gentiles for being under
pagan powers. 

Loren Rosson III
Nashua NH
rossoiii AT yahoo.com

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