Corpus-Paul

[Zeba Crook <zeba.crook AT utoronto.ca>]

Maybe I'm missing something, and in the bigger picture of Charles's 
questions, this is
little more than semantic quibbling, I recognise, but if something is Hapax 
"to the NT"
does that not mean that it appears in the NT and no where else?  For example, 
Luke has
more hapaxes than anyone in the NT; these words are hapax to Luke in the NT, 
but few of
them are hapax to the NT.  They are hapax to Luke.  Likewise, epispaomai is 
hapax to
Paul in the NT, but it occurs plenty outside the NT.

Zeb

"David C. Hindley" wrote:

> Zeba Crook says:
>
> >>the term is hapax *in* the NT to 1 Cor 7:18, but it's not "hapax to the
> NT,
> as you put it; it occurs outside the NT, the implication being to start
> there in a
> search for meaning.<<
>
> I cannot find the word EPISPAOMAI or cognates used elsewhere in the NT, and
> this seems to be confirmed by Sakae Kubo's _Reader's Lexicon_ (page 153).
> Doesn't that make it "hapax to the NT?"
>
> Of course, I took Charles's comment as an observation that the word is not
> common to the NT. It seemed reasonable to conclude that he makes the
> statement because he expects this to have an impact on his research.
>
> Normally, a word being a hapax to the NT *does* make the *usual* bible-study
> aids a bit useless. If your point is to recommend first looking at the
> non-NT meanings, I would agree. Biblical study aids do seem to have tunnel
> vision!
>
> Charles might consider checking some of the lexical aids in the Perseus
> website. That will give him a good idea where else the word is used among
> the many but not exhaustive list of Greek texts that Perseus has online
> (many with English translations). Then he could check the context used by
> hyperlinking to the texts themselves.
>
> http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/
>
> Respectfully,
>
> Dave Hindley
> Cleveland, Ohio, USA
>
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