Corpus-Paul

["Mark D. Nanos" <nanosmd AT comcast.net>]

on 9/17/02 1:02 PM, Charles Savelle at chsavelle AT hotmail.com wrote:

> I have three interrelated questions regarding the use of the NT hapax
> EPISPAOMAI ("to remove the marks of circumcision")in 1 Cor 7:18.
> The first question pertains to the origin and background of the term. I
> haven't been too successful in finding much here. Is anyone aware of any
> detailed studies of the term?

Charles,
I find two studies you may wish to consult:
Robert Hall, "Epispasm and the Dating of Ancient Jewish Writings," Journal
for the Study of the Pseudepigrapha 2 (1988) 71-88.
Nisan Rubin, "The Stretching of the Foreskin and the Enactment of Periah,"
(in Hebrew), Zion 54 (1989) 105-17.

These are from Shaye Cohen's very useful book for these kinds of topics: The
Beginnings of Jewishness, U. of California Press, 1999.

> The second question is a little more historical, that is, is there any
> evidence that early Jewish Christians ever attempted to undo their
> circumcisions?

Not of which I am aware. It would be counter-intuitive for the Judean
coalitions, who appear to have valued their Jewish identity "zealously," and
it would be against Pauline teaching, to which you refer.

> The third question is more literary. If early Jewish Christians were not
> typically involved in being uncircumcised, then what is the purpose of
> Paul's reference to what basically would be a non-issue in 1 Cor 7:18? At
> this stage, I am inclined to think that Paul mentions it merely for the sake
> of balancing his argument and illustrating the comprehensiveness of the
> principle which he introduced in the previous verse. Any thoughts?

I would agree that this seems more of a rhetorical point.

Regards,
Mark
-- 
Mark D. Nanos, Ph.D.
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