Corpus-Paul

["Ron Price" <ron.price AT virgin.net>]

I wrote:

>> Paul says here that he "received" these views. But he does not say where
>> from. In the light of Gal 1:11-12 it is quite reasonable to deduce that the
>key
>> theological elements in 1 Cor 15:1-8 were received by "revelation"
>> rather than tradition.

John Dickson replied:

>Against this is the exegetical point that the KAI before the verb
>PARALAMBANW (v.3) implies that Paul's receipt of the EUAGGELION was in like
>manner to his 'handing over' (PARADIDWMI) of the same to the Corinthians -
>"I ALSO received ..."  In other words, Paul too was a recipient of a 'human'
>PARADOSIS.

John,
  I'm not convinced that Paul's contrast between PARALAMBANW and
PARADIDWMI means anything more than a claim that he is passing on
faithfully all that he has received (from all sources).

>Furthermore, how does Ron Price understand v.11, "whether it was I or they,
>hOUTWS KHRUSSOMEN"?
>
> Or, more improbably, was he,
>in fact, the source of 'their' (Cephas, James, et al)  belief in /
>proclamation of  the above gospel-tradition?

  This is highly improbable.

> Is Paul baldly 'fibbing'?
> Or is the traditional reading
>the most plausible: Paul preaches what others before him and along side him
>preach(ed), namely, that Jesus died for sins and was raised?

  I see two possible answers, depending on what is referenced in hOUTWS.
In both cases the answer has to be somewhere in between these two
extremes. 
(a) If hOUTWS refers back to vv.3-8: 
 There can be little doubt that *some* of what Paul recounts came from
tradition. Jesus, who was recognized as the Messiah (Christ), died.
Cephas (Peter) and James were both reported to have seen visions of
Jesus after his death. There may also have been traditions about the
twelve and the 500.
  As for the remaining beliefs, Paul probably received them "by
revelation", c.f. Gal 1:11-12.
(b) If hOUTWS refers forward to v.12, as suggested by the REB
translation "Now if this is what we proclaim, that Christ was raised
from the dead, ...", which would better suit the context of the whole
chapter:
  Paul may have been blurring the distinction between the terminology of
James et al. and his own. Whereas they said: "We have had visions of
Jesus", Paul said "Jesus has been raised from the dead". The former does
not necessarily imply the latter, but here Paul may have taken it to do
so and thus have been able to claim: "hOUTWS KHRUSSOMEN".

  By the way, you didn't explain how on your view the Galatian and
Corinthian texts referenced above can be reconciled.

Ron Price

Weston-on-Trent, Derby, UK

e-mail:  ron.price AT virgin.net

Web site:  http://homepage.virgin.net/ron.price/index.htm