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  • From: "J.E.Harding" <BSP97JEH AT sheffield.ac.uk>
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Re: Eph 1:13
  • Date: Tue, 3 Aug 1999 15:04:08 +0100


I think you make an interesting point about Isa 52:7 and Eph 1:13,
though I think some thought needs to be given to the question of what
constitutes 'influence'. The Isaiah passage may well have influenced
the author of the Ephesians passage, but that is not to say that he
is directly alluding to it. We need to remember that the authors of
the NT writings were immersed in the Scriptures to a far greater
extent than we can really imagine, and in this case, given the fact
that Isa 52:7 was such an influential verse in any case, I think we
need to consider that the author of the Ephesians passage is drawing
on a fairly amorphous mass of terms and concepts to which the LXX
version of Isaiah contributed heavily.

I have recently been working on Luke's Gospel in light of the Greek
versions of the OT, and it has struck me that there is a fine line
between an allusion to an OT passage and an example of drawing on a
pool of terms and concepts to which OT passages have contributed.

On the question of the lack of reference to your idea among the
commentators-this could well, in fact, be a sure indicator that you
are right!!

James Harding
University of Sheffield



  • Eph 1:13, John Dickson, 08/02/1999
    • <Possible follow-up(s)>
    • Re: Eph 1:13, J.E.Harding, 08/03/1999
    • Re: Eph 1:13, Robert M Schacht, 08/03/1999

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