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Subject: Corpus-Paul

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  • From: Robert M Schacht <bobschacht AT juno.com>
  • To: corpus-paul AT franklin.oit.unc.edu
  • Subject: Hope
  • Date: Sun, 18 Jul 1999 18:47:10 -0700


Here's my question: When Paul uses various forms of the word "hope"
(elpis, elpizo) in Romans 8:20-25, is he using the word in its ordinary
Greek senses, or is he extending the word into new territory, and
building new nuances for the word? (See also Romans 4:18, 5:2-5, 12:12,
and 15:4,13). Also, is there anything distinctive about this usage that
ties it to the use of the word in the later chapters of Acts (23-28), or
distinguishes it from the non-pauline uses (e.g., Hebrews 6-7) in the NT?
I ask this question in the 'hope,' as the mainline churches continue
their march through Romans for the second month in a row, that we can do
something to enlighten the pew sitters who wonder just what the heck Paul
was writing about. I also ask because it seems to me that Paul's usage is
a little unconventional in a number of respects.

Bob
-----------------------------------
Robert M. Schacht, Ph.D.
Northern Arizona University
Flagstaff, AZ


Bob
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  • Hope, Robert M Schacht, 07/18/1999
    • <Possible follow-up(s)>
    • Re: Hope, Johann D. Kim, 07/20/1999
    • Re: Hope, Robert M Schacht, 07/21/1999

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