Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Chris Watts <dekruidnootjes AT eircom.net>]

Hi Pere
I do believe that this is because it is followed by a yod, and the  
yod is never pronounced with a lengthened 'a' sound.  The yod will  
always be either an 'i' or an 'ay'  that is either with a tsere or a  
hireq, remeber that a yod is actually a vowel in its own right with a  
distinctive sound as just mentioned.  The others that you quote are  
followed by consonants and therefore the aleph can have the 'ahh'  
sound, since the aleph is not follwed by the yod.

Others on this list may give you a more professional explanation and  
this would be always beneficial, but unfortunately I do not come from  
a grammatical upbringing, just a reader and so I may not have given a  
full explanation.


Chris Watts
Ireland



On 23 Jul 2013, at 11:54, Pere Porta wrote:

Dear listers,

the word in Mic 1:8 we dealt with some days ago, has tsere under the  
aleph.
Now,  some words are found in the biblical text having the same pattern
(binyan, person, number...)...  And so,
)$BYTH, ashbytah (Dt 32:26)
W)BDYLH, w'abdylah (Ezr 8:24)
W)BLYGH, w'ablygah (Job 9:27)
All of these have PATAH under the aleph.
My question is:
is there any good reason for the tsere  -and not a patah--    under Tthe
form in Mic 1:8?

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)

2013/7/22 Will Parsons <wbparsons AT alum.mit.edu>

> On Sun, 21 Jul 2013 17:25:09 -0400, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>  
> wrote:
> > "People" did not write the HB. Spoken Hebrew has its purposes, and BH
> > has its purposes.
> > I doubt that King David mundanely spoke to his wives and children in
> > BH.
>
> Obviously, BH is a language made up just to write down the scriptures.
>
> --
> Will Parsons
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> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
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--
Pere Porta
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