Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Ken Penner <kpenner AT stfx.ca>]

See Joüon §6i:

“It is recognised that Proto-Semitic had three long vowels, ā, ī, ū, three short vowels a, i, u, and two diphthongs ay, and aw.”

Proto-Semitic /ay/ ‍became Tiberian ֵ
בֵּית־ “the house of” < /*bayt/; סוּסֵ֫ינוּ /susẹ'nu/ “our horses”

So Joüon §76c has for Primitive פ״י verbs:

*yayṭīb > יֵיטִיב.

 

Paul Joüon and T. Muraoka, A Grammar of Biblical Hebrew (Roma: Pontificio Istituto Biblico, 2006).

 

 

Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.

Associate Professor, Religious Studies

2329 Notre Dame Avenue, 409 Nicholson Tower

St. Francis Xavier University

Antigonish, NS  B2G 2W5

Canada

(902)867-2265

kpenner AT stfx.ca

 

 

 

From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Jerry Shepherd
Sent: Tuesday, July 23, 2013 12:06 PM
To: b-hebrew
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why tsere? (was ואילילה Micah 1:8)

 

Hi Pere,

 

I'm not quite sure what your question is.  If you're asking why we have this anomalous situation, the answer is that this is the regular vocalization for 1-yod verbs in the hiphil imperfect.  But if you're asking why this happens in the hiphil, i.e., what are the series of steps that account for why this is the vocalization in the hiphil, then perhaps someone else can provide that information.

 

Blessings,

 

Jerry

Jerry Shepherd

Taylor Seminary

Edmonton, Alberta

jshepherd53 AT gmail.com

 

 

On Tue, Jul 23, 2013 at 4:54 AM, Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com> wrote:

Dear listers,

 

the word in Mic 1:8 we dealt with some days ago, has tsere under the aleph.

Now,  some words are found in the biblical text having the same pattern (binyan, person, number...)...  And so,

)$BYTH, ashbytah (Dt 32:26)

W)BDYLH, w'abdylah (Ezr 8:24)

W)BLYGH, w'ablygah (Job 9:27)

All of these have PATAH under the aleph.

My question is:

is there any good reason for the tsere  -and not a patah--    under Tthe form in Mic 1:8?

 

Pere Porta

(Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)