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  • From: John Leake <jesleake AT yahoo.co.uk>
  • To: David Kolinsky <hadeesh AT sbcglobal.net>
  • Cc: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Exodus 21:8
  • Date: Thu, 2 May 2013 10:26:15 +0100

May I ask a question here? The קרי is לו יעדה (lô y'ada). But it seems very odd for the lô to come before the verb. I wonder if that happens elsewhere. 

On the meaning, I must note that in Arabic ועד w'd means 'to promise, keep ones word' and 'to make an appointment, rendezvous' in the thitd form (fã'ala [= the rare פועל poel in Hebrew] that makes an action with respect to the grammatical object) and that מועד maw'id is 'promise, appointment, rendezvous'. Are there other contexts where the idea of 'making a pledge' might fit with its sense of arranging a meeting?

Is there more Qumran context for יעד in the sense 'to promise, pledge'? BDB does state that it has this meaning in rabbinic Hebrew, but I'm not familiar with the language.

John Leake
----------------------------------
ان صاحب حياة هانئة لا يدونها انما يحياها
He who has a comfortable life doesn't write about it - he lives it
---------------------------------- 

On 1 May 2013, at 23:13, David Kolinsky <hadeesh AT sbcglobal.net> wrote:

Karl and Kevin:

I suggest that you ponder the meaning of the niphal of this verb in Amos3:3.

There are many meanings for the root (DH.  But based on the words (aD = until, eternity; (oWD - still, again and (aeD = evidence (as well as many others);
I suggest to you that one of the meanings of this root is "to endure."

For this reason, the root also means "to set a time / meeting (a time of enduring in a certain place)"
Note also the related roots :

(DD (polel) meaning "to help endure, support, sustain (Ps146:9;147:6) and in the hitpael: to endure, remain standing (Ps20:9).

S(D meaning "to sustain, maintain (Is9:6)(Pr20:28); to support (Ps18:36;20:3;41:4;94:18;119:117); to refresh oneself (KgI13:7)  

and others.


In the case of Exod21:8, I agree with Karl that it is the KTiV that is correct and not the Qere.  I believe the correct translation is as follows:

"If she is bad / unpleasant in the sight of her lord, such that he cannot endure / tolerate her then he must let her go........."

In Amos3:3 the correct translation is : "Can two walk together, without the possibility of them being able to tolerate / endure together?"


David Kolinsky
Monterey, CA


From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
To: Kevin W. Woodruff <cierpke AT prodigy.net>
Cc: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wed, May 1, 2013 1:06:40 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Exodus 21:8

Dear Kevin:

On Wed, May 1, 2013 at 12:08 PM, Kevin W. Woodruff <cierpke AT prodigy.net> wrote:

From: Kevin W. Woodruff <cierpke AT prodigy.net>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Exodus 21:8
To: "K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
Date: Wednesday, May 1, 2013, 3:00 PM


Karl:
 
We have two issues here:
 
One is the meaning of ya'ad which in the Qal means "to designate or assign", and in this case to assign a concubine

From where do you get this definition?

From uses within Tanakh, it appears to have the meaning “to call out to a meeting” whether small or large. Similar to the Greek εκκαλεω.
 
There is a variant reading here. One (the kethiv reading) is the negative lo which "not" and the other (the qere reading) is  the preposition and pronominal suffix lo' which means "to, or for him(self), which is the reading I choose here"

Yes I know about the Qere reading, but with my experience that about 90% of the time the Qere reading appears to be wrong (this is just counting the consonantal text, what about the vowels?), in an uncertain verse the odds say I should stay with the Kethiv.
 
It basically says that a man does not have the right/power/authority to sell a woman to foreigners but must redeem her, because of his faithlessness//treacherousness /deceitfulness with her by not marrying her. In an age when women were mostly chattel and goods, this legislation gave basic human rights to wives/concubines.

Even if we go with the Kethiv and the female slave has not been used sexually, doesn’t this verse give protection to such a female slave? That she’s not just goods that can be traded away?

But if we go with the Qere, how does the WHPDH fit in?
 
Kevin

Prof. Kevin W. Woodruff, M.Div., M.S.I.S.
Library Director/Reference Librarian, Assistant Professor of Bible, Greek, Theological Bibliography and Research
Tennessee Temple University/Temple Baptist Seminary, 1815 Union Ave.
Chattanooga, Tennessee 37404, United States of America
423/493-4252 (office) 812/821-4512 (cell) 423/493-4497 (FAX)
Cierpke AT prodigy.net

Karl W. Randolph. 

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