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  • From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: [b-hebrew] Exodus 21:8
  • Date: Wed, 1 May 2013 09:49:55 -0700

Dear List Members:

I am finding this verse to be a little difficult to understand, and have puzzled over it many a time.

The second half seems to say, “he (the master) should not rule to sell her to a foreign people in his treating her underhandedly.”

But the first half — “But if she is displeasing in her master’s eyes…” which is clear, but the next ?? “which he had not had a (sexual ??) meeting nor did he cause her to be redeemed,”

Are we dealing with a misreading, what do the DSS say?

Is there and ancient custom of which I am ignorant?

Any thoughts?

Karl W. Randolph.





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