Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Dear List Members:

I am finding this verse to be a little difficult to understand, and have puzzled over it many a time.

The second half seems to say, “he (the master) should not rule to sell her to a foreign people in his treating her underhandedly.”

But the first half — “But if she is displeasing in her master’s eyes…” which is clear, but the next ?? “which he had not had a (sexual ??) meeting nor did he cause her to be redeemed,”

Are we dealing with a misreading, what do the DSS say?

Is there and ancient custom of which I am ignorant?

Any thoughts?

Karl W. Randolph.