Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

Philip,

If I understand you right, your proposed meaning of ha-baal is the exact 
opposite of the way the definite article is used on a proper noun in Biblical 
Hebrew.  It seems you are saying that when "baal" has the definite article, 
it is not a name, but "the husband".  In English that would be true, but in 
Hebrew it is the opposite. Baal can be a word or a proper name. To refer to 
the name, Baal, rather than the word baal, in Hebrew you put the definite 
article on it. So Ha-Baal means Baal the idol (unless the context might refer 
to a previously-mentioned husband).  Baal without the definite article is 
usually the word baal, meaning husband, etc.

I had asked a similar question on B-Hebrew in 2006 regarding place names, but 
the same applies to personal names. Here's Yigal Levin's answer:
> Dear Steve,
>
> The general rule is that proper names don't need the article. However, 
> proper names that are understood as descriptive may receive the 
> article, since it's the article that makes them into proper names in 
> the first place.
> For example, "Mizpeh" means "lookout". For a "lookout" to be a proper name,
> it would have to be "The Lookout". This might eventually develop into 
> just "Lookout", if the place became so well-known that everyone would 
> know which
> lookout was meant. Of course, one problem that we have is that we 
> don't always know what the authors assumed that their readers would know.
>
> S. Noah Lee wrote an article on "The Use of the Definite Article in 
> the Developement of some Biblical Toponyms" in Vetus Testamentum 53 
> (2002), 334-349. I happen to have a photocopy. If you wish, contact me 
> off-list and
> I'll email you a copy.
>
> Yigal

I have the pdf of the above article. It is well-written. If anyone wants a 
copy, email me off-list, and I'll send you a copy.


Sincerely yours,
Steve Miller
Detroit
www.voiceInWilderness.info
Though an army should encamp against me,
my heart won't fear from anxiety.
Though a war rise up against me to rent,
in this thing I will be confident. (Ps 27:3)


> 
> On Aug 3, 2012, at 12:53 AM, Philip Hardy wrote:
> 
> Hello. My Name is Philip A. Hardy. I have noticed that in most instance in 
> the
> King James Bible where The word BAAL is or any english word(s) that derived
> from the same Hebrew word that BAAL derived from, namely בעל, the
> original Hebrew almost always has "הבעל". This I believe is best conveyed or
> rendered in English as "the owner", "the husband", "the master", or "the
> lord". Now where is found היהוה only once and possibly could be be 
> translated
> "he the life", conversely is found הבעל thirty eight times. Now if הבעל can 
> be
> translated "the lord" and the name "יהוה" is not transliterated as is "בעל" 
> but
> is (mis)translated as "The Lord" and Certain persons choose not to "proclaim
> the name" or "Publish the name" as the word says we should, then could it
> be that This is a fulfillment of the prophecy found in JER 23:26-27 "Jer 
> 23:26
> How long shall [this] be in the heart of the prophets that prophesy lies? 
> yea,
> [they are] prophets of the deceit of their own heart;Jer 23:27 Which think 
> to
> cause my people to forget my name by their dreams which they tell every
> man to his neighbor, as their fathers have forgotten my name for Baal.
> wherein BAAL is really הבעל "The Lord" or "...as their fathers have 
> forgotten
> my name for "The Lord"." Any insight, conveyed musings, or constructive
> criticisms would be welcome. Good Day Philip Hardy