Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Petr Tomasek <tomasek AT etf.cuni.cz>]

On Sat, Jun 18, 2011 at 07:21:00AM +0200, Pere Porta wrote:
> 1. Difference segol-tsere in preposition )T.
> In the Hebrew Bible both are found.
> Whether it has segol or tsere has nothing to do with its meaning.
> And so, in Jdg 8:7 it appears five times (with conjunction W or without it):
> the first three it is the object marker while the last two mean "with".

It depends on the accents/stress, i.e. whenever it doesn't have it's
own word stress (i.e. it is connected with the following word with
maqqēf), it is read with segōl, owtherwise it has ṣērē.

> Remark: in today Israeli Hebrew only segol is used.
> 
> 2. So, this preposition means the object marker or "with" depending on the
> context.
> Now, in the declension it behaves differently: as object marker it takes
> vowel [i] while as preposition 'with' it takes vowel [o].
> 
> And so:
> 
> -)ITIY, with me (Jdg 1:3)

should read ʾittī, i.e. with dagesh forte.

> -)OTIY, me (Gn 34:30)

BTW, the object marker and preposition את are differentiate in the babylonian
and samaritan tradition.

> Kind regards from
> 
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)
> 
> 
> 
> 2011/6/17 Michael Abernathy <mabernathy AT conwaycorp.net>
> 
> > Both really.
> >
> >
> > On 6/17/2011 1:25 PM, Pere Porta wrote:
> > > Michael,
> > > The subject title of your post seems to point to the difference
> > > segol-tsere.
> > > While the body of you post points to the double meaning  (with and
> > > object marker) of preposition aleph-tav.
> > > Are you interested in the first or in the second issue?
> > > Kind regards from
> > > Pere Porta
> > >
> > > 2011/6/17 Michael Abernathy <mabernathy AT conwaycorp.net
> > > <mailto:mabernathy AT conwaycorp.net>>
> > >
> > >     I was just reading Genesis 37:2 when I noticed that the word for
> > >     with is
> > >     written the same as the direct object marker where it says Joseph 
> > > was
> > >     shepherding the flock with his brothers.
> > >
> > >     ????? ????? ???-?????? ????????
> > >
> > >     HAYAH RO)EH(ET-(EXAYN
> > >
> > >     Does this reflect an alternate pronunciation, was the scribe
> > >     suggesting
> > >     that Joseph was supervising his brothers, or is there another
> > >     reason for
> > >     the spelling?
> > >     Sincerely,
> > >     Michael Abernathy
> > >     _______________________________________________
> > >     b-hebrew mailing list
> > >     b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org <mailto:b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
> >  >     http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > > --
> > > Pere Porta
> > >
> >
> > _______________________________________________
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> > http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
> >
> 
> 
> 
> -- 
> Pere Porta
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-- 
Petr Tomasek <http://www.etf.cuni.cz/~tomasek>
Jabber: butrus AT jabbim.cz

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EA 355:002  TU TU TU TU
EA 355:003  NU NU NU NU NU NU NU
EA 355:004  NA NA NA NA NA
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