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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
- To: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
- Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Why not ")ULBAN"?
- Date: Tue, 19 Apr 2011 15:54:52 -0700
Pere:
This was poetry, meant to be sung. This looks like the addition of a sound
to make the word tempo fit the music. But that works only if you accept that
Biblical Hebrew was a CV language.
Karl W. Randolph.
On Tue, Apr 19, 2011 at 12:28 AM, Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com> wrote:
> At considering Ps 51:9 I wonder about the last word in the verse.
> )LBYN, a typical Hiph'il, imperfect, first person singular: *I will cause
> to
> be white* (in a literal translation)
>
> Now, the real sense is: I will be caused to be/become white.
>
> To my eyes it would seem more logical here the use of the Hoph'al: )ULBAN.
>
> Why Hiph'il and not Huph'al?
> Of course, I'm not intending to change the text; I just look for a more or
> less convincing explanation.
>
> --
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
>
-
[b-hebrew] Why not ")ULBAN"?,
Pere Porta, 04/19/2011
-
[b-hebrew] DIBBER & ELALESEN in Dt 1:1,
Philip, 04/19/2011
- Re: [b-hebrew] DIBBER & ELALESEN in Dt 1:1, George Athas, 04/19/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Why not ")ULBAN"?,
K Randolph, 04/19/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Why not ")ULBAN"?,
Pere Porta, 04/20/2011
- Re: [b-hebrew] Why not ")ULBAN"?, K Randolph, 04/20/2011
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Why not ")ULBAN"?,
Pere Porta, 04/20/2011
- <Possible follow-up(s)>
- [b-hebrew] Why not ")ULBAN"?, Randall Buth, 04/19/2011
- [b-hebrew] Why not ")ULBAN"?, Randall Buth, 04/20/2011
-
[b-hebrew] DIBBER & ELALESEN in Dt 1:1,
Philip, 04/19/2011
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