Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Philip <philipengmann AT yahoo.com>]

Dear Listees,
 
1. I am looking for differences betwen the LXX & MT.
 
2. One such difference I seem to see is the word, "DIBBER" in Deuteronomy 1.1
 
3. I tentatively parse the hebrew word, "DIBBER" as piel (emphatic). However 
I see no corresponding emphasis in the corresponding Greek word, "ELALESEN", 
which I parse as an Aorist, Active, Indicative verb.
 
4. Am I correct?
>From pporta7 AT gmail.com  Tue Apr 19 04:31:24 2011
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Date: Tue, 19 Apr 2011 10:31:23 +0200
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From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>
To: Philip <philipengmann AT yahoo.com>
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] DIBBER & ELALESEN in Dt 1:1
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Dear Philip,

no, you aren't.
The Greek verb "laléo" is, so to say, emfatic if compared with the basic
"légo" (éipen in the past)

So, "laléo" = speak, tell, talk, chat (emfatic)... while "légo" = say
(simple, unenfatic)

That's why LXX has "elálesen" -- to reflect "diber" and not "éipen" -- to
reflect "amar".

Friendly,

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
2011/4/19 Philip <philipengmann AT yahoo.com>

> Dear Listees,
>
> 1. I am looking for differences betwen the LXX & MT.
>
> 2. One such difference I seem to see is the word, "DIBBER" in Deuteronomy
> 1.1
>
> 3. I tentatively parse the hebrew word, "DIBBER" as piel (emphatic).
> However I see no corresponding emphasis in the corresponding Greek word,
> "ELALESEN", which I parse as an Aorist, Active, Indicative verb.
>
> 4. Am I correct?
> _______________________________________________
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
>



-- 
Pere Porta