Biblical Hebrew Forum

[George Athas <George.Athas AT moore.edu.au>]

Pere,

That explanation doesn't sit well with me, since the sere vowel is reducible, 
and under normal conditions, it would be the first sere in חֵרֵשׁ that gets 
reduced. Why does the first remain, and the second get reduced?

Do you happen to have a reference to which you could direct me?


GEORGE ATHAS
Moore Theological College (Sydney, Australia)
www.moore.edu.au


From: Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com<mailto:pporta7 AT gmail.com>>
Date: Wed, 6 Apr 2011 16:32:12 +0200
To: George Athas <george.athas AT moore.edu.au<mailto:george.athas AT moore.edu.au>>
Cc: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org<mailto:b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Plural of חֵרֵשׁ (deaf)

Dear George,

This is not a morphological "oddity"; this is the usual plural form of words 
like "heresh". For instance, of "qereaH", bald (Lv 13:40).

The form with hatef patah in the first syllable and tsere in the second one 
is ONLY for adjective "aher", other (look at Gn 23:13) and for words having 
(in the singular absolute) qamats in their first syllable plus tsere in their 
second one and whose first root consonant is guttural: haber, friend (Jd 
20:11), arel, uncircumcised (Jr 9:25), ayef, tired (Jd 8:4)

Kind regards from

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)