Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Sébastien Louis <sebalou AT hotmail.com>]

Pere,

million thanks for your explanations, very clear in this particular case. As 
I'm still a beginner in biblical Hebrew, may I ask if there is a general rule 
saying when we should pronounce qamats and when we should pronounce 
qamats-hatuph? I thought that in every closed, unaccented syllabe, it was 
qamats-hatuph. But I see that there are many exceptions and cases where it is 
not the case...

Thanks again,

Sébastien Louis

Date: Mon, 28 Feb 2011 12:27:51 +0100
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Qames hatuph - syllable and sheva
From: pporta7 AT gmail.com
To: sebalou AT hotmail.com
CC: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org

Sébastien,
 
you bring here two different cases.
 
1. You refer to the word we find in Dt 6:5. There are other similar cases in 
the Bible (look for instance at Ps 55:23; at 1Sa 9:10 or at Gn 40:19). 
 
Remark: 
-All nouns consisting of three root letters, the first one having shewa and 
the second one having qamats (all....with five exceptions) ------> take 
qamats under the second consonant when they take the masculine suffix for you 
(male).

--Most nouns consisting of three root letters, the first one having tsere 
(long e) and the second one having qamats (the word you mention is one of 
these: look at Dt 28:28 for the basic or absolute) behave similarly if they 
do not come from roots ayin-waw nor have a guttural for their first root 
consonant. 


2. The Hoph'al. 
 
The first syllable in the Hoph'al is ALWAYS read with vowel 'o' and in the 
unvowellized writing a waw is inserted.
 
So, הָקְטַל
 
is ALWAYS read or pronounced as "hoqtal" and it is always written as הוקטל in 
the writing without vowels (namely the usual Israeli script...)
 
You have other cases in Jr 6:6, Joel 1:9 and in Dn 9:1
 
Is this clear enough for your purposes?
 
 
Heartly
 
Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
 
2011/2/28 Sébastien Louis <sebalou AT hotmail.com>


Hello,





I’ve got one question
about the qames and qames-hatuph (linked also with the sheva and the 
syllabes). If the qames is

in a closed, unaccented syllable, it is pronounced qames-hatuph. Take these 2 
words:
 לְבָבְךָ








הָקְטַל




My question is: why do we pronounce "le-va-ve-kha" (and not "le-vov-kha") on 
the

one hand; and on the other hand, “hoq-tal”? Both cases
seem to me identical, i.e. a qames in a closed, unaccented syllable. So why 2 
different rules?




In
 other words, why is the qames in the first case a

qames and not a qames-hatuph since it is followed by a sheva, so in a
closed,
unaccented syllable (I presume the accent falls on the last
syllable)? Or, to say it again differently, why is the syllable "va" in

"le-va-ve-kah" open and not closed, since followed by a sheva?





Many thanks in advance if you can help.


Sébastien
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-- 
Pere Porta