Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>]

It is also conceivable that the language of the latter books  
(including the book of Ben Sira) "came down" closer the language of  
the people, until the written language became eventually united, in  
the MI$NAH and L$ON XAKAM-IYM, with the spoken language. See

http://he.wikipedia.org/wiki/%D7%9C%D7%A9%D7%95%D7%9F_%D7%97%D7%96%22% 
D7%9C

We also know that the book psalms contains peculiar grammatical  
("morphological") forms, such as TA-GMUL-O-HIY (116:12).

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Feb 9, 2011, at 3:50 PM, Chavoux Luyt wrote:

> Shalom Isaac
>
> From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
> <snip>
>
> No doubt that Mesha wrote (or had a scribe do it, mistakes and all)
> his stone in "Biblical Hebrew style". The question is if at home,
> talking to Mesha-at his wife or to his children he said VA-E-QAX HA-
> BOQER $NEI MELAPEPONIYM V-AGBANIYA VA-A-AS LI SALAT, or LAKAX-TIY HA-
> BOQER $NEI MELAPEPONIYM V-AGBANIYA V-ASITIY LI SALAT?
>
> I am pretty sure that written "biblical Hebrew" reflects the  
> language as it was spoken at the time. It is indeed possible to see  
> some grammatical and vocabulary changes between earlier books and  
> later books showing that there was some change in the language as  
> one would expect.
>
> And no doubt Mesha said to his wife: LAKAX-TI HA-BOQER $NEI  
> MELAPEPONIYM V-AGBANIYA VA-A-AS LI SALAT ! :-)
>
> Regards
> Chavoux Luyt