Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Chavoux Luyt <chavoux AT gmail.com>]

Shalom Nir

<snip>
> are we really on the same side?
Maybe not. I understood it that the waw consecutive "changes" the
"tense"/"aspect" of the verb.
>
> i still cannot understand this statement. can you
> explain it in gen 1:10? what justified the use of one imperfectum
> tense and one perfectum tense there, if both actions are equally complete?
וַיִּקְרָא אֱלֹהִים לַיַּבָּשָׁה אֶרֶץ וּלְמִקְוֵה הַמַּיִם קָרָא יַמִּים
וַיַּרְא אֱלֹהִים כִּי־טֹֽוב׃
In this case the first "vayikra" would be perfectum because of the waw and
the second "kara" would also be perfectum ("normal" perfectum). The "wayar"
would be perfectum by the same logic. All of these acts are complete.

Regards
Chavoux
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