Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Pere:

On Sun, Jan 9, 2011 at 9:51 PM, Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com> wrote:

> Dear Karl,
>
> you raised this question on last October.
> Our friend Randall Buth wrote this:
>
> * Karl's suggestion of a piel from '.y.d. is bogus Hebrew
> (an impossible suggestion).*
> *Psalm 31.12 is presenting 'elipsis' in its second clause.*
>
> Were the raisons then provided (by me and others) against the possibility
> of M)D as a Pi'el (*) form not convincing?
>
> Maybe you did not read those posts?
>

No, you just reminded me why I forgot his answer. His answer did not take
into account context nor syntax.

I remember your answer for another part of the question I raised in October.

>
>
> (*) You write now "puel". Do you mean "pual"?
>

You’re right, I meant pual. I just recently reread the question and realized
that a pual would probably fit the form better than a piel.

>
> Kinds regards from
>
> Pere Porta
> (Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)
>

Karl W. Randolph.