Biblical Hebrew Forum

[fred burlingame <tensorpath AT gmail.com>]

permit me to suggest that the average consumer of the deuteronomic legal
code ("Code") in 882 b.c.; and in 1982 a.d., needed david's explanation of
the relevant words, and perhaps more, to properly grasp the meaning of the
terms, as he explains same.

And to move the lengthy words of the Code on the leather scroll; to a
pithy statement on the individual family doorpost ... required yet
additional assistance, from the priest/lawyer in moving the language down to
the level of consumer (and in my humble opinion).

regards,

fred burlingame

On Wed, Jan 5, 2011 at 4:30 PM, <dwashbur AT nyx.net> wrote:

>
>
> On 5 Jan 2011 at 14:02, fred burlingame wrote:
>
> > The conclusion flows naturally from the facts ...
> >
> > Let's examine some facts relevant ...
> >
> > a. does the average consumer of the language english have the
> > slightest clue
> > as to what this law means?
> >
> > http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/html/uscode08/usc_sec_08_00001631-
> > ---000-.html
> >
> > b. does even the average trained purveyor of this law understand
> > this
> > english language?
> >
> > c. obviously, the answer to both "a" and "b" = negative.
> >
> > d. and likewise, for the similar deuteronomic legal code in 882
> > b.c., all as
> > illustrated today by david's excellent explanation of the civil
> > law
> > then. ezra was not needed to "translate" in 442 b.c.; but to
> > "explain" as
> > david explained today; or so nehemiah 8:8 states.
>
> Sorry, but you are comparing apples to rabbits again.  The law in the
> Cornell link is not
> written in English; it's written in Legalese, an artificial dialect created
> by lawyers to confound
> the rest of us while making themselves sound impressive.  Nothing in the
> Deuteronomic
> code, or any of the rest of the Law for that matter, is even remotely
> comparable.  So your
> conclusion flows naturally from...nothing.
>
> Dave Washburn
>
> http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
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