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  • From: Kevin Riley <klriley AT alphalink.com.au>
  • To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] continuum of dialects
  • Date: Wed, 05 Jan 2011 10:17:55 +1100

While undoubtedly a little out of date now, you may find a persual of "Dialect Geography of Syria Palestine 1000-586 BCE" by W Randall Garr would answer some of your questions. While it may not be available in your local library, it should be available through inter-library loan. Or, if you're really interested in the subject, Amazon has one copy available for $47.50.

Kevin Riley

On 4/01/2011 3:45 PM, fred burlingame wrote:
Hello Yigal:

Thanks for your informative comments.

I selected 882 b.c., as a random number in the middle of the first temple
period.

Your interesting remarks seem to confirm that the Israel region in 882 b.c.,
enjoyed a continuum of dialects, just like the egyptian region of 1982 a.d.
In the former case, it appears that biblical hebrew language eased into
moabite language in the east; and eased into aramaic language in the north.
What about gaza or canaan language in the west?

I would also contrast (for clarification) the situation in israel 882 b.c.,
with arizona in 1982 a.d. In arizona, the navajo language does not ease into
any of the surrounding european languages. A chasm wide and broad separates
the two sets of languages. An english or spanish speaker encountering navajo
language falls off a figurative cliff of comprehension.That the hebrew
language of 882 b.c., was not unique to the israel region (unlike navajo
language in arizona 1982 a.d,) seems very significant.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Navajo_language

regards,

fred burlingame




On Mon, Jan 3, 2011 at 10:01 PM, Yigal Levin<leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il> wrote:

Fred,

We have enough inscriptions to show that the written language of an area
stretching from the Galilee to the Sinai in the Iron Age was close enough
to
the language of the Bible to be considered "Hebrew". There are enough
differences between that language and Aramaic or Phoenician to show that
those were separate languages. Many of the said inscriptions are of types
(graffiti, non-royal tombs) that would indicate that this was also the
language spoken by the common people, although as in all languages, there
were probably differences between the spoken and written languages. However
the same inscriptions also show that: a: there were dialectical differences
between regions (Samaria vs. Judah vs. Moab etc.); b: the language also
developed over time.
So yes, various dialects of "Hebrew" were commonly spoken throughout Israel
and Judah around 882 BCE (why that year?), but the specific dialect that
the
pre-exilic books of the Bible were written in is most similar to what was
spoken in Judah towards the end of that period.

Yigal Levin

Ps. As you know, the line between "dialect" and "separate language" is
often
hard to define, and often depends not on any objective linguistic criteria
but on how the users of the language see themselves. So while I might
include Moabite as a dialect of Hebrew, I would not be surprised if neither
the Moabites or the Israelites saw it that way.


-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces AT lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of fred burlingame
Sent: Tuesday, January 04, 2011 4:51 AM
To: Uzi Silber
Cc: B-Hebrew
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] continuum of dialects

Hello Uzi;

the entire question is not whether hebrew was spoken, but what was the
prevalence of the language in the region in 882 b.c., ... approximately ...

a. 1 percent of the population;

b. 10 percent of the population;

c. 100 percent of the population?

or to put it another way; what was the language of the gov't; of the
priests; of the aristocracy; of the peasants on the street; of the middle
class; .... of lord& master to the servant in the home?

regards,

fred burlingame


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