Biblical Hebrew Forum

[fred burlingame <tensorpath AT gmail.com>]

the question implied by the verse and obvious to anyone conversant with that
scroll follows.

do those particular two words; does the hebrew literature of that
scroll; describe a "french judicial system" or an "english judicial system?"

a. In france, government judges decide civil and criminal cases based upon
a set of written statutes. The judges hear evidence and announce rulings,
applying the statutes to the facts. Written reasons for the rulings, given
... not. The body of written statutes hence, remains inviolate & supreme.

b. In england, government judges originally decided civil and criminal cases
based upon a written set of statutes. In significant contrast to france,
however, england judges write reasons for their rulings. This body of
judge written rulings then acquires a life of its own in books, etc., over
the centuries, and eventually eclipses and surpasses the original written
set of statutes.

So, the question remains; do the two operative words in this hebrew verse,
in this hebrew literature; describe an english or french type, criminal and
civil judicial system? (see, by way of reference and not limitation,
deuteronomy 17:8-11.)

the תלמוד , incorporating the biblical hebrew language, answers that
question as "b."

regards,

fred burlingame
On Fri, Dec 31, 2010 at 1:54 PM, K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com> wrote:

> Fred:
>
> On Fri, Dec 31, 2010 at 11:50 AM, fred burlingame 
> <tensorpath AT gmail.com>wrote:
>
>> if you read the first post initiating this thread,
>>
>> you would know from the subject line of that post, the identity of
>> the hebrew words in the verse quoted ....
>> regards,
>>
>> fred burlingame
>>
>
> I read the first message, and saw no question.
>
> So out with it, what is the question?
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>